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??? I'm trying to, hence my attempt to clarify. Could you please help me understand what you were saying? I'm trying to read it as anything but how I've restated it, but I genuinely can't.

How about this - if America didn't exist, and doctors got paid what they got paid in Europe right now, why are there doctors in Europe?



European doctors aren't in medicine to get rich. A decent number of doctors in the US went into medicine primarily because of the pay.


So isn't it reasonable to assume we will still have doctors if the pay is at the level of European doctors then?




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